Edgewood Church of Christ

Greenville, South Carolina

Yes!  The Bible teaches that baptism is essential for salvation in Mark 16:16 "He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned."  Notice closely in this verse that Jesus connects baptism with salvation.  The one who is saved is the one who, (according to Jesus), has been baptized.  Jesus also connects baptism and salvation in John 3:3, 5.  Notice:  "Jesus answered and said to him, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." And "Jesus answered, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God."  Here we see that without baptism one can not enter the Kingdom of God.  Jesus says that it will require water and spirit.  In the Bible we are taught that at baptism we have water and spirit coming together (Acts 2:38).  So the Bible is clear, in order for a person to be saved from their sins (Romans 3:23) they must have those sins removed by the blood of Christ (Ephesians 1:7).  We see this very thing taking place at the moment of baptism (Acts 22:16).  Remember, even Peter teaches that baptism is essential to salvation when he writes in 1 Peter 3:21  "There is also an antitype which now saves us—baptism (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,"  Dear friend, have you been baptized according to how the Bible teaches and in the same manner the Bible teaches?        

What about divorce and dateing? If I am not scriptuarely divorced can I still date and have a boyfriend or girlfriend?

You mention Mark 16:16 requires baptism for salvation, but the end of the quote does not link baptism and salvation, only belief and salvation. It is true that baptism is a naturally expressive form of belief that links the believer to the Christian community, but it is faith alone that is the "requirement" for salvation. To say otherwise would be to condemn those who believe but have not yet been baptized, or do you disagree?

In your question you reveal two things. 1) you have a knowledge of what the Bible teaches regarding Divorce and remarriage. 2) You admit that you are in violation of what the Bible teaches on this issue by stating "I am not scripturally divorced...".  In Matthew 5:32 as well as Matthew 19:9 Jesus teaches us that apart from the death of a spouse, fornication is the only acceptable reason for the marriage bond to be broken.  While one is free to have friends that are male and friends that are female your question is not asking this.  You are asking if you may be in a relationship with another person that goes beyond a general friendship and extends to a relationship that is exclusive and personal.  The scripture is clear on this, one in an unscriptural divorce may not have a boyfriend or girlfriend.  How could they since they are still "married" to their spouse.  An unscriptural divorce does not free one from the bond of marriage.  Would it be acceptable for a husband to have a girlfriend?  Would it be acceptable for a wife to have a boyfriend? Certainly not!  The person who is not scripturally divorced is still a "wife" or a "husband".  Having a boyfriend or girlfriend in this situation would expose one to the temptation to commit adultery.  I do hope that you will be able to reconcile to your spouse.  If this is not possible, I hope you will honor what the Bible teaches on this topic.     

Thank you for the question.  To give it a proper response I will break it down. 1. You mention Mark 16:16 requires baptism for salvation, but the end of the quote does not link baptism and salvation, only belief and salvation.  One can not skip over the first part of a verse and negate what it says only to accept the later part of the verse.  Jesus says "He who believes and is baptized will be saved."  He does not say "He who believes is saved and is then baptized."  Jesus teaches that ones "belief" leads to obedience which is manifested in baptism. Thus, he concludes that one who does not believe will not be obedient to the need to be baptized and because of this they will be condemned.  James 1:22 supports the need for one to "do" what the word of God teaches.  In this verses the word of God teaches that one must be baptized.  Your attempt at faith only salvation is refuted by the very scripture verse you quote.    2. It is true that baptism is a naturally expressive form of belief that links the believer to the Christian community, but it is faith alone that is the "requirement" for salvation. The scripture is clear, baptism is when and where the alien sinner is saved: Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, 1 Peter 3:21.  The Bible does not support the false doctrine of "Faith Only Salvation". Our faith must be manifested in obedience to the Word of God.  Please read Hebrews Chapter 11:4-40.  In all of these events faith was manifested in obedience (see James 2:14).  Being obedient to the command to be baptized is the very thing Jesus is talking about in Mark 16:16.  3.  To say otherwise would be to condemn those who believe but have not yet been baptized... As has been shown to you the Bible commands baptism in order for one to be saved (see again Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, 1 Peter 3:21).  In addition to these verses Jesus himself commands that one be "born again" in order to be saved in John 3:3, 5.  One is "born again" when they are baptized in water (John 3:5-6).  Those who have not been baptized are indeed condemned as taught by Jesus in Mark 16:16.  4.  or do you disagree? Scripture itself disagrees with your "faith only" error. 

The scriptures do not teach that one must be a "scholar" in order to be a "good Christian".  They do however teach that one must know the word of God (2 Timothy 3:16) and be a doer of the word of God (James 1:22).    The Book of Hebrews is addressed to Christians who wanted to leave Christ and go back to the Law.  This was based on their lack of growth as Christians (Hebrews 5:12-14). For the Christian to be equipped for every good work (2 Timothy 3:17) he or she must know what the Bible expects of them.  As for one being a teacher, deacon, elder or preacher there must be a level of understanding of the Scriptures that enables them to teach, correct, rebuke and train others (2 Timothy 2:2).  One must be able to know the pattern of sound words, understanding this pattern and hold fast to it (2 Timothy 1:13).  The Bible makes it clear that those who teach others will receive a stricter judgment (James 3:1). 

I am divorced and remarried, my husband slept with another woman first, so I slept with somebody to. Since he cheated first is my divorce scriptuaral?

If I know that someone in the church is gambling should I make the elders aware of that?

Based on the teaching of scripture you are both guilty of adultery and are therefore not eligible to remarry.  Please see Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:31-32.  Pay close attention to what these passages teach regarding a person who has committed adultery remarrying.  There is one situation in which you may remarry with scriptural support.  Leave the adulterous marriage you are currently in and be reconciled to your first husband. 

Yes.  The eldership is given the responsibility to Shepherd the church of God as overseers of the flock (Acts 20:28).  They will also be asked to "give and account" for the souls trusted to their care (Hebrews 13:17).  If a member of the congregation they care for is struggling with a sin the eldership needs to know so they can minister to the individual.  Would not a shepherd want to know if one of his sheep were hurting or struggling?  The same is true for the eldership.  We should never hesitate to bring concerns to the eldership. 

If I make $5000.00 a month and only give back $50.00 a week, am I wrong for not giving more?

The Bible offers several guidelines for giving.  (1) We should give as we have prospered: 1 Corinthians 16:2.  (2) We are to purpose (plan) to give:  2 Corinthians 9:7.  (3) We are to give cheerfully / willingly: 2 Corinthians 9:7.  I would ask you to prayerfully consider these scriptures and relate it to your giving. 

Will I see my family when I get to Heaven if they are there?

The Bible gives us the understanding that in the Hadean Realm there is knowledge and understanding.  In Luke 16:19-31 we see that Abraham and the Rich Man had knowledge and understanding.  The Rich Man knew who Abraham was even though he had never meet him and he retained his knowledge of his brothers as well as Lazarus.  We see nothing to indicate that in Heaven our knowledge will be done away with and we will become a "blank slate".  Also, give close attention to Luke 16:23; "And being in torments in Hades, he lifted up his eyes and SAW Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom." The rich man was able to see not just Abraham but Lazarus as well. 

Do I have to be a bible scholar to be a good christian? In other words must I know the whole bible to be a teacher,deacon,elder, or even pracher?

In your question you state many false assumptions.  Congregations make an “issue” out of instrumental music because worship is an “issue” with God.  False worship (Vain worship: Matthew 15:9, Will worship: Colossians 2:23, Ignorant worship: Acts 17:23) matters to God.  Worship that is in error is not worship at all.  We are instructed to worship in Spirit and in truth as found in John 4:23-24.  Since the use of mechanical instruments in worship is not authorized by command, example or necessary inference there is no way it could be spirit and truth worship or done with “thus says the Lord”  approval  (please see Colossians 3:17).  As for “spiritual condemnation” perhaps you have not read  2  Thessalonians 3:6 in which we are instructed to withdraw from those that walk (live) disorderly.  Worshipping in error and promoting the acceptance of the instrument in worship would most certainly qualify as walking disorderly.  I find it odd that you would call this practice of scripture “condemnation”.  It seems your argument is with the apostle Paul and not us as we are simply following that which he has taught according to inspiration.  Your final comment is to make the assertion that the use of instrumental music is not even addressed in scripture.  Again, you are in error regarding this.  Colossians 3:16 as well as Ephesians 5:19 teaches what type of music is  acceptable to the Lord.  In each verse it is clearly stated that vocal, not instrumental music, is acceptable.  When God specifies what he wants that excludes everything else. 

How do you stay positive when it seems like every time you turn around somebody is tripping you again?

Is it a sin to be vain?

There are many things that we encounter in this world that can make it hard for us to stay positive.  The loss of a job, the illness of a loved one, hardships, etc.  It is also true that there are individuals that can act in a negative way in our life also causing us to struggle with being positive.  In each of these instances I would encourage you to consider Colossians 3:1-3.  Here Paul reminds us to keep our focus on God.  The world (including other people) will often times try to take our focus off of God. By setting our mind on God we are better equipped to overcome difficult situations and people.  We can keep our mind on God by reading scripture, mediating on a scripture verse or passage, attending Bible study, as well as being faithful in our worship attendance.  Another issue to consider when it comes to people is Paul's instruction in1 Corinthians 15:33.  We should avoid evil company because it can corrupt good character.

It would depend on the degree to which one is given to vanity.  We do many things to approve our appearance.  Men shave, get haircuts, trim their beards, shower and wear deodorant.  Many women fix their hair, wear make-up, shower, have their nails done, wear undergarments,  etc.  These things in and of themselves, though they are a form of vanity,  would not cause one to be overly vain.  Vanity would come when one sets their self-worth or the self-worth of another person on the outward appearance. The definition of “vain” entails that one takes “excessive pride” in their appearance Peter adresses this issue in1 Peter 3:3-4.  Here he reminds us that we should not have a focus that is totally outward (excessive).  A person should consider those qualities that make up “inner beauty” as well.   If a person bases their self-worth or the self-worth of others on the outward appearance then you have vanity at its worst and yes it would be sinful.

If one is single and vacations with a female friend is it wrong to share a hotel room?

It the two are of the same sex I would see no issue with the sharing of a room.  People of the same sex share common restrooms, dorms, and changing rooms. If the two are of the opposite sex this could put a person in a potentially compromising situation.  Remember, David was enticed by the appearance of Bathsheba (1 Samuel 11:2). John reminds us in 1 John 2:16 that there is such a things as “lust” and it can have a strong pull upon us.  Finally, I would offer that the sharing of a room with a person of the same sex could give the wrong appearance to others (1 Thessalonians 5:22) and as such it would be wise to avoid the situation.   

Why do some churches make such an issue about using instrumental music; even to the point of spiritual condemnation when it was not an issue for the 1st century church, nor even  addressed?

My sister told me that the Church of Christ started in 1906.  is this right?

Wanted to know what is considered appropiate dress for Church. Thank you

I will kindly offer that your sister is mistaken.  She may be referring to what has come to be called the “1906 Division” involving the churches of Christ and the Christian Church.  The “split” between the churches of Christ and the Christian Church had actually occurred many years prior to this.  It is referred to as the “1906 Division” because this is the first year in which the United States Government recognized each group as being separate from one another.  This  division occurred because those supporting the use of instrumental music in worship left the churches of Christ and formed new  congregations. In some cases, they even “took control” over existing  congregations.  To this day, the Christian Church remains a  denomination and continues in its error of using instrumental music in worship.           The Church of Christ is the same church you read about in the New Testament. It has Jesus Christ as its head and founder (Matthew 16:18 / Ephesians 1:22-23).  It was established on the Day of Pentecost In AD 33.  It holds to no book but the Bible (2 Timothy 3:16) and has no creed but Jesus Christ (Acts 4:12).      If you would like to know more about the Church of Christ I invite you to contact me.  We have several home Bible studies that can be done at your own pace.  If you live in or near the Greenville area, I am  happy to come and do a home Bible study with you.  I hope to hear from you soon.

That which is moral and modest for both men and women acording to 1 Timothy 2:9-10 and 1 Peter 3:3 is what would be appropiate dress for church.   If something would cause another to stumble it would not be moral or modest (Matthew 5:27-28). Notice that if 1 Timothy 2:9-10 teaches about modest apparel then it follows that there is such a thing as immodest apparel. Also, 1 Peter 3:3-5 teaches that the "outside" is a reflection of the "inside". One who is dressed in a way that is not modest or moral would be telling a great deal about what is going on in the inside. Here are some words used in scripture that can guide us on how we are to dress: · Modest: Orderly, well arranged, decent · Propriety: a sense of shame, modesty, demeanor · Moderation: soundness of mind, self control, sober · Godliness: piety, reverence toward God, devoutness When a person chooses what to wear to worship they should take these scriptures as well as the meaning of these words into consideration when choosing their clothing. 

Is it wrong to take the Lord’s name in vain?  If so, what are examples of taking God’s name in vain?  Will the words we say or can the words we say condemn us to Hell?  Matthew 12:36.

You have asked several good questions.  Let me answer them as written… 1“Is it wrong to take the Lord’s name in vain?”  Yes.  When God spoke his commandments to the Hebrew people In Exodus 20:7 he commanded that his name not be taken in vain.  Jesus reaffirms this command in Matthew 6:9 when he prays “…hallowed be thy name…”  The name of God is to be honored. 2.“…What are examples of taking God’s name in vain?”  I will offer several… vulgar talk, vulgar jesting, ascribing to God works he has not commanded, asking God’s blessing on that which he condemns, asking God’s blessing but not doing his will, and disrespectful slang such as gee, gosh, OMG, etc.  3.“Will…or can… the words we say condemn us to Hell.” The Bible teaches that we will be held accountable for that which we say.  Colossians 3:8, Ephesians 4:29 and Matthew 12:36. That accountability would most certainly include Hell as being a possibility.  4.“Matthew 12:36.” I think you offer a good supportive verse here.  I would also include verse 37 as well.  It reads:   36 But I say to you that for every idle word men may speak, they will give account of it in the day of  judgment. 37 For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned.” Thank you for your question. 

CAN A PERSON REMARRY IF BOTH MAN & WOMAN COMMITTED FORNICATION IN THEIR MARRIAGE(THIS BEING THEIR FIRST MARRIAGE)& THEN HE DIES, IS SHE ABLE TO REMARRY?

There has been much debate in the Lord’s Church regarding the divorce and remarriage issue.  This issue is a serious one because it has eternal consequences.  I have read and respect much of what has been written on both sides of the “remarriage” issue.  I have however, come to a conclusion based on my study of the scriptures that I will gladly share with you.  The scriptures are clear in teaching us that if both parties commit fornication during their marriage they are both guilty of adultery and neither one would be able to remarry.  I will offer Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32.  In each passage the act of adultery makes the spouse ineligible for remarriage.  As to the second part of your question, can a person who has committed adultery marry if their spouse dies?  This question centers around Romans 7:2-3 which reads: 2 For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.  This passage has no application to an ineligible person remarrying.  To be clear, this passage does not give the right of remarriage to one who has been put away for adultery.  The context of this passage is found in verse 1 and verse 4. Verse one is dealing with the Christian and the Old Testament Law.  Verse 4 confirms that Christians have become dead to the Law so they are no longer bound by it.  The passage is not dealing with divorce and remarriage at all.  Paul simply uses the illustration of marriage to prove a point about the Law in the life of a Christian.  To make the assertion that a person who has been put away for adultery can remarry if their spouse died is to read into the text what it does not say.  So, to answer your question, as I read and understand these scriptures my teaching is that a person who has committed adultery cannot remarry if their spouse dies.    Thank you for the question.